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As I read it, Paul explicitly states in vv. 8-12 that what he describes there is his will (desire). He does not attribute it to God. [Of course, my reading also requires understanding v. 7 (“I speak the truth in Christ and lie not”) as referring to his testimony stated in vv. 3-7 (or perhaps only to his v. 7 report of ordination as a preacher and apostle). I see no need to think of vv. 8-12 as Paul’s words translated incorrectly. Instead, it’s a great example of a church leader pressing his personal preferences (whether or not originating in general culture). Were I teaching I’d introduce that idea into the discussion and let (or prod) people find recent church history examples. I’d raise the question when it is best to accommodate such expressions of personal preference (even if the speaker mistakes them for God’s will) and under what circumstances it is fine not to accommodate them or to take issue with them. There is, in my view, certainly no need to liken each of Paul’s personal views statements to ourselves, whether or not they’ve been enshrined in scripture canonized a few hundred years later and centuries before the restoration. I’d say likening this passage to ourselves means identifying the problem of dealing with church leaders’ expressions of personal preferences and determining what to do with that problem in various circumstances. These verses raise the question; they do not answer it. Trajectory hermeneutics is a good approach; the trajectory needs to be followed through at least to current church leaders’ instructions on women teaching and speaking up in church. (For me “at least” is an important concept in that sentence.)

⁠— JR